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ANALOGIES I

ANALOGIES I

Related Links:
Analogy II

In analogy questions, the relationship between the words ismore important than the meanings of the words themselves.The analogy section of the GRE is one of the easiest partsof the test to improve on. Before You Look at The Answer-Choices, Think of a Short Sentence That Expresses The Relationship Between The Two Words.

Example: FISH : SCHOOL ::
How are FISH and SCHOOL related? Well, a group of fish is called a school.

Example: JOURNALIST : TYPEWRITER ::
Paraphrase: A journalist uses a typewriter as a tool of histrade.

Example: ORCHESTRA : MUSICIAN ::
(A) story : comedian
(B) band : singer
(C) garden : leaf
(D) troupe : actor
(E) government : lawyer
Paraphrase:"An ORCHESTRA is comprised of MUSICIANS." Now, aSTORY is not comprised of COMEDIANS. Eliminate (A). A BANDmay have a SINGER, but a BAND is not comprised of SINGERS:there may be a drummer, guitarist, etc. Eliminate (B).Similarly, a GARDEN is comprised of more than just LEAVES.Eliminate (C). But a TROUPE is comprised of ACTORS. Theanswer, therefore, is (D). If More Than One Answer-Choice Fits Your Paraphrase, Make Your Paraphrase More Specific.
Example: CLUB : GOLF ::
(A) type : book
(B) ball : soccer
(C) glove : baseball
(D) racket : tennis
(E) board : chess
Paraphrase: "A CLUB is used to play GOLF." However, thisparaphrase eliminates only answer-choice (A). A morespecific paraphrase is: A CLUB is used to strike a ball inthe game of GOLF. Similarly, a RACKET is used to strike aball in the game of TENNIS. The answer is (D).
Note: The parts of speech are consistent throughout ananalogy problem. Hence, if the given pair is an adjectiveand a noun, then each answer-pair will be an adjective and anoun, in that order. This helps you determine the intendedmeaning when one (or both) of the given words has more thanone part of speech.

Eliminate Answer-Choices That Do Not Have A Clear And Reasonably Necessary Relationship.Educated guessing is a very useful technique on the GRE. If you can eliminate one or more answer-choices, you will probably increase your score by guessing.
Example: CORROSION : IRON ::
(A) sloth : energy
(B) disease : vision
(C) atrophy : muscle
In choices (A) and (C) there are clear and reasonablynecessary relationships between the words of each pair: aSLOTHFUL person lacks ENERGY, and ATROPHY means "the wastingaway of MUSCLE." But in choice (B) there is no necessaryrelationship between the words: most DISEASES have no effecton VISION. Hence, eliminate choice (B). The correct answeris (C) since CORROSION is the wasting away of IRON, just asATROPHY is the wasting away of MUSCLE.
Note: Be careful when eliminating answer-choices to hardanalogy problems because the relationship may not be strong,or it may actually be between esoteric (rare) meanings ofthe words. This is often what makes a hard analogy problemhard.

Watch Out For Eye-Catchers
Unfortunately, the writers of the GRE often set traps byoffering an answer-pair that reminds you of the original pair but has a different relationship. The correct answer-pair, of course, will have the same relationship as the original pair, but the words in the answer will typically be in an entirely different category. The following diagram indicates how the relationship functions between the original pair and the correct answer, and how the relationship functions between the original pair and the eye-catcher.

MONARCHY is an eye-catcher since it reminds one ofGOVERNMENT--it's a type of government. Now, a paraphrase forANARCHY : GOVERNMENT is ANARCHY is the absence ofGOVERNMENT. Similarly, FREETHINKING is the absence ofDOGMATIC thought. Notice that GOVERNMENT and DOGMATIST arein different categories: a DOGMATIST is not a GOVERNMENT.
Example: EXCERPT : NOVEL ::
(A) critique : play
(B) review : manuscript
(C) swatch : cloth
(D) foreword : preface
(E) recital : performance
Notice how in answer-choice (B) MANUSCRIPT reminds you ofNOVEL: a manuscript could be an unpublished novel. However,a REVIEW is not part of a manuscript. Whereas, an EXCERPT ispart of a NOVEL. (What is the other eye-catcher in thisproblem?) The answer is (C).

In Hard Problems, Eliminate Any Answer-Choice That RemindsYou (However Vaguely) Of The Original Pair. Eye-catchers are sometimes the answer to easy problems;rarely are they the answer to medium problems; and virtuallynever are they the answer to hard problems. When an averagestudent guesses on a hard problem he chooses an answer thatreminds him of the original pair. But if the eye-catcherwere the answer, then the average student would get theproblem correct and therefore it would not be a hard problem.
Example: EXORCISM : DEMON ::
(A) matriculation : induction
(B) banishment : member
(C) qualm : angel
(D) heuristic : method
(E)manifesto : spirit
This is a hard problem. Hence, eliminate any answer-choicethat reminds you (however vaguely) of DEMON. A DEMON is aSPIRIT. So eliminate choice (E). Next, choice (C) is notstrictly speaking an eye-catcher. But an ANGEL does remindone of a DEMON, and this is a hard problem. So eliminatechoice (C). Now, to EXORCISE a DEMON means to drive it away.Similarly, to a BANISH a MEMBER of a group means to drivehim or her away. The answer is (B).

ANTONYMS II

In next post , we shall learn about Analogy

ANTONYMS II (WORD ANALYSIS)

Word analysis (etymology) is the process of separating aword into its parts and then using the meanings of thoseparts to deduce the meaning of the original word. Take, forexample, the word INTERMINABLE. It is made up of threeparts: a prefix IN (not), a root TERMIN (stop), and a suffixABLE (can do). Therefore, by word analysis, INTERMINABLEmeans "not able to stop." This is not the literal meaning ofINTERMINABLE (endless), but it is close enough to find anantonym. For another example, consider the word RETROSPECT.It is made up of the prefix RETRO (back) and the root SPECT(to look). Hence, RETROSPECT means "to look back (in time),to contemplate."

Word analysis is very effective in decoding the meaning ofwords. However, you must be careful in its application sincewords do not always have the same meaning as the sum of themeanings of their parts. In fact, on occasion words can havethe opposite meaning of their parts. For example, by wordanalysis the word AWFUL should mean "full of awe," orawe-inspiring. But over the years it has come to mean justthe opposite--terrible. In spite of the shortcomings, wordanalysis gives the correct meaning of a word (or at least ahint of it) far more often than not and therefore is auseful tool.

Examples:

Indefatigable

Analysis: IN (not); DE (thoroughly); FATIG (fatigue); ABLE(can do)

Meaning: cannot be fatigued, tireless

Circumspect

Analysis: CIRCUM (around); SPECT (to look)

Meaning:to look around, that is, to be cautious

Antipathy

Analysis: ANTI (against); PATH (to feel); Y (noun suffix)

Meaning: to feel strongly against something, to hate

ANTONYMS I

Hi all ,over the week or two ,we will cover much on verbal section. Im gathering more information on it .Hope it will be useful to u.
And the most your feedbacks are welcome

ANTONYMS I
There are about 9 antonyms on verbal section of the test.The questions are mixed in with the analogies, sentence completions, and reading comprehension. An antonym will often begin the verbal section.

Put The Word In Context.
In our daily speech, we combine words into phrases and sentences; rarely do we use a word by itself. This can cause words that we have little trouble understanding in sentences to suddenly appear unfamiliar when we view them in isolation. For example, take the word "whet." Most people don't recognize it in isolation. Yet most people understand it in the following phrase:To whet your appetite "Whet" means to stimulate.If you don't recognize the meaning of a word, think of a phrase in which you have heard it used.Change The Word Into A More Common Form.Most words are built from other words. Although you may not know a given word, you may spot the root word from which it is derived and thereby deduce the meaning of the original word.
Example:
PERTURBATION: (A) impotence (B) obstruction (C) prediction (D) equanimity (E) chivalry

You may not know how to pronounce PERTURBATION let alone know what it means. However, changing its ending yields the more common form of the word "perturbed," which means "upset, agitated." The opposite of upset is calm, which is exactly what EQUANIMITY means. The answer is (D).

Test Words For Positive And Negative Connotations.
Testing words for positive and negative connotations is probably the most effective technique for antonyms. Surprisingly, you can often solve an antonym problem knowing only that the word has a negative connotation.
Example:
REPUDIATE: (A) denounce (B) deceive (C) embrace (D) fib (E) generalize

You may not know what REPUDIATE means, but you probably sense that it has a negative connotation. Since we are looking for a word whose meaning is opposite of REPUDIATE,we eliminate any answer-choices that are also negative. Now,"denounce," "deceive," and "fib" are all, to varying degrees, negative. So eliminate them. "Generalize" has a neutral connotation: it can be positive, negative, or neither. So eliminate it as well. Hence, by process of elimination, the answer is (C), EMBRACE.

  • Any GRE Word That Starts With "De," "Dis," or "Anti" Will Almost Certainly Be Negative.Examples: Degradation, Discrepancy, Discriminating, Debase, Antipathy
  • Any GRE Word That Includes The Notion of Going up Will Almost Certainly Be Positive, and any GRE Word That Includes The Notion of Going Down Will Almost Certainly Be Negative.

Examples (positive): Elevate, Ascendancy, Lofty
Examples (negative): Decline, Subjugate, Suborn (to encourage false witness)

Watch Out For Eye-Catchers.
On medium and hard problems some answer-choices will catch your eye by reminding you of some part of the original word or some common meaning of the word. Be wary of these choices--they are eye-catchers.
Example:
SUFFRAGE: (A) absence of charity (B) absence of franchise (C) absence of pain (D) absence of success (E) absence of malice

SUFFRAGE is a hard word. It appears to come from the word "suffer." The opposite of suffering would be an absence of pain. However, that connection would be too easy, too obvious for this hard problem. "Absence of pain" is a trap. In fact, SUFFRAGE means "the right to vote." And FRANCHISE is a synonym for "vote." Hence, the answer is (B), ABSENCE OF FRANCHISE. Be Alert To Secondary (Often Rare) Meanings Of Words On problems of average difficulty (the middle third), the GRE writers often use common words but with their uncommon meanings. An example will illustrate.
Example:
CHAMPION: (A) relinquish (B) contest (C) oppress(D) modify (E) withhold

The common meaning of CHAMPION is"winner." It's opposite would be "loser." But no answer-choice given above isSynonymous with "loser." CHAMPION also means to support orfight for someone else. (Think of the phrase "to champion a cause.") Hence, the answer is (C), OPPRESS.

The parts of speech in an antonym problem are consistentthroughout the problem. Hence, if the given word is a verb,then every answer-choice will be a verb as well. This factoften helps you determine whether a word is being used in asecondary sense because words often have different meaningsdepending on their use as nouns, verbs, or adjectives
Example:
AIR: (A) release (B) differ (C) expose (D) betray(E) enshroud

AIR is commonly used as a noun--indicating that which we breathe. But every answer-choice is a verb. Hence, AIR in this case must also be a verb. A secondary meaning for AIR is to discuss publicly. The opposite is to ENSHROUD, to hide, to conceal. Hence, the answer is (E).

Note: Hard problems (the last third) have hard answers.Hence be wary of common words on hard problems. But don't eliminate them for that reason alone: they may still be theanswer. So if the given word is totally unfamiliar and noneof the previous techniques have helped, then choose thehardest or most unusual word.

Never spend more than 30 seconds on an antonym problem! Ifyou don't know the given word, use the above techniques to eliminate as many answer-choices as possible; guess from the remaining ones; then move on.

Beat the Big Boss RC

The post here is quite long but don get bewildered . Its for all those whose nightmare is Reading Comprehension .All aspect of the RC and their question type as well as possibly choosing the right answer are discussed here .

Next post will be more on verbal ..keep looking

GRE Exam Verbal testing - GRE verbal skill requirements. Learn about the Verbal aspect of the GRE Verbal exam, get extensive test prep help for the GRE Verbal exam.

FORMAT OF THE GRE EXAM - VERBAL GRE TEST
The verbal section of the test consists of four types of
questions: Sentence Completions, Analogies, Reading Comprehension, and Antonyms. They are designed to test your ability to reason using the written word. The section is 30 minutes long and contains 30 questions. The questions can appear in any order.

FORMAT for the GRE VERBAL
About 6 Sentence Completions
About 7 Analogies
About 8 Reading Comprehension
About 9 Antonyms

READING COMPREHENSION for the GRE VERBAL EXAM
The verbal section of the GRE contains two to four passages, with about eight questions among them. The subject matter of a passage can be lmost anything, but the most common themes are politics, history, culture, and science.
READING METHODS for the GRE VERBAL EXAM
Some books recommend speed-reading the passages. This is a mistake. Speed reading is designed for ordinary, nontechnical material. Because this material is filled with "fluff," you can skim over the nonessential parts and still get the gist--and often more--of the passage. However, GRE verbal passages are dense. Some are actual quoted articles. Most often, however, they are based on articles that have been condensed to about one-third their original length. During this process no essential information is lost, just the "fluff" is cut. This is why speed reading will not work here--the passages contain too much information. You should, however, read somewhat faster than you normally do, but not to the point that your comprehension suffers. You will have to experiment to find your optimum pace. Many books recommend reading the questions before the passage. But there are two big problems with this method.
First, some of the questions are a paragraph long, and reading a question twice can use up precious time. Second, there are up to five questions per passage, apsychologists have shown that we can hold in our minds a maximum of about three thoughts at any one time (some of us have trouble simply remembering phone numbers). After reading all five questions, the student will turn to the passage with his mind clouded by half-remembered thoughts. This will at best waste his time and distract him. More likely it will turn the passage into a disjointed mass of information. However, one technique that you may find helpful is to preview the passage by reading the first sentence of each paragraph. Generally, the topic of a paragraph is contained
in the first sentence. Reading the first sentence of each paragraph will give an overview of the passage. The topic sentences act in essence as a summary of the passage.
Furthermore, since each passage is only three or four paragraphs long, previewing the topic sentences will not use up an inordinate amount of time.
THE SIX QUESTIONS
The key to performing well on the passages is not the particular reading technique you use (so long as it's neither speed reading nor pre-reading the questions). Rather the key is to become completely familiar with the question types--there are only six--so that you can anticipate the questions that might be asked as you read the passage and answer those that are asked more quickly and efficiently. As you become familiar with the six question types, you will gain an intuitive sense for the places from which questions are likely to be drawn. This will give you the same advantage as that claimed by the "pre-reading-the-questions" technique, without the confusion and waste of time. Note, the order in which the questions are asked roughly corresponds to the order in which the main issues are presented in the passage. Early questions should correspond to information given early in the passage, and so on.

The following passage and accompanying questions illustrate the six question types. There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world--the adversarial and the inquisitorial. The former is associated with common law tradition and the latter with civil law tradition. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned his own remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent. The vengeance system was a system of self-help, the essence of which was captured in the slogan "an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth." The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. Thus, for example, even though the right to institute criminal action has now been extended to all members of society and even though the police department has taken over the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his own pretrial investigation. The trial is still viewed as a duel between two adversaries, refereed by a judge who, at the beginning of the trial has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes the punitive combat.

By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance . Therefore, from the standpoint of legal anthropology, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system the public investigator has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of the prosecutor but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present to the court not only evidence that may lead to the conviction of the defendant but also evidence that may lead to his exoneration. This system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, in an effort to make the trial less like a duel between two adversaries, the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective.

Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal case the crucial factor is not the legal rule but the facts of the case and that the goal of the entire procedure is to experimentally recreate for the court the commission of the alleged crime.
MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS
The main idea is usually stated in the last--occasionally the first--sentence of the first paragraph. If it's not there, it will probably be the last sentence of the entire passage. Because main idea questions are relatively easy, the GRE writers try to obscure the correct answer by surrounding it with close answer-choices ("detractors") that either overstate or understate the author's main point. Answer-choices that stress specifics tend to understate the main idea; choices that go beyond the scope of the passage tend to overstate the main idea. The answer to a main idea question will summarize the author's argument, yet be neither too specific nor too broad.
Example: (Refer to the first passage.) The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) explain why the inquisitorial system is the best system of criminal justice
(B) explain how the adversarial and the inquisitorial systems of criminal justice both evolved from the system of private vengeance
(C) show how the adversarial and inquisitorial systems of criminal justice can both complement and hinder each other's development
(D) show how the adversarial and inquisitorial systems of criminal justice are being combined into a new and better system
(E) analyze two systems of criminal justice and deduce which one is better

The answer to a main idea question will summarize the passage without going beyond it.
(A) violates these criteria by overstating the scope of the passage. The comparison in the passage is between two specific systems, not between all systems. (A) would be a good answer if "best" were replaced with "better." Beware of extreme words. (B) violates the criteria by understating the scope of the passage. Although the evolution of both the adversarial and the inquisitorial systems is discussed in the passage, it is done to show why one is superior to the other. As to (C) and (D), both can be quickly dismissed since neither is mentioned in the passage. Finally, the passage does two things: it presents two systems of criminal justice and shows why one is better than the other. (E) aptly summarizes this, so it is the best answer.
Description Questions
Description questions, as with main idea questions, refer to a point made by the author. However, description questions refer to a minor point or to incidental information, not to the author's main point. The answer to a description question must refer directly to a statement in the passage, not to something implied by it. However, the correct answer will paraphrase a statement in the passage, not give an exact quote. In fact, exact quotes ("Same language" traps) are often used to bait wrong answers.
Caution: When answering a description question, you must find the point in the passage from which the question is drawn. Don't rely on memory--too many obfuscating tactics are used with these questions. Not only must the correct answer refer directly to a statement in the passage, it must refer to the relevant statement. The correct answer will be surrounded by wrong choices which refer directly to the passage but don't address the question. These choices can be tempting because they tend to be quite close to the actual answer. Once you spot the sentence to which the question refers, you still must read a few sentences before and after it, to put the question in context. If a question refers to line 20, the information needed to answer it can occur anywhere from line 15 to 25. Even if you have spotted the answer in line 20, you should still read a couple more lines to make certain you have the proper perspective.
Example: (Refer to the first passage.Refer to the first passage.)
According to the passage, the inquisitorial system differ from the adversarial system in that
(A) it does not make the defendant solely responsible for gathering evidence for his case
(B) it does not require the police department to work on behalf of the prosecution
(C) it does not allow the victim the satisfaction of private vengeance
(D) it requires the prosecution to drop a weak case
(E) a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system
This is a description question, so the information needed to answer it must be stated in the passage--though not in the same language as in the answer. The needed information is contained in the fourth sentence of Paragraph 3, which states that the public prosecutor has to investigate on behalf of both society and the defendant. Thus, the defendant is not solely responsible for investigating his case. Furthermore, the paragraph's opening implies that this feature is not found in the adversarial system. This illustrates why you must determine the context of the situation before you can safely answer the question. The answer is(A).
Writing Technique Questions
All coherent writing has a superstructure or blueprint. When writing, we don't just randomly jot down our thoughts; we organize our ideas and present them in a logical manner. For instance, we may present evidence that builds up to a conclusion but intentionally leave the conclusion unstated, or we may present a position and then contrast it with an opposing position, or we may draw an extended analogy. There is an endless number of writing techniques that authors use to present their ideas, so we cannot classify every method. However, some techniques are very common to the type of explanatory or opinionated writing found in GRE passages.
A. Compare and contrast two positions.
This technique has a number of variations, but the most common and direct is to develop two ideas or systems (comparing) and then point out why one is better than the other (contrasting). Writing-technique questions are similar to main idea questions; except that they ask about how the author presents his ideas, not about the ideas themselves. Generally, you will be given only two writing methods to choose from, but each method will have two or variations.
Example: (Refer to the first passage.)
Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) Two systems of criminal justice are compared and contrasted, and one is deemed to be better than the other.
(B) One system of criminal justice is presented as better than another. Then evidence is offered to support that claim.
(C) Two systems of criminal justice are analyzed, and one specific example is examined in detail.
(D) A set of examples is furnished. Then a conclusion is drawn from them.
(E) The inner workings of the criminal justice system are illustrated by using two systems.

Clearly the author is comparing and contrasting two criminal justice systems. Indeed, the opening to paragraph two makes this explicit. The author uses a mixed form of comparison and contrast. He opens the passage by developing (comparing) both systems and then shifts to developing just the adversarial system. He opens the second paragraph by contrasting the two criminal justice systems and then further develops just the inquisitorial system. Finally, he closes by again contrasting the two systems and implying that the inquisitorial system is superior.

Only two answer-choices, (A) and (B), have any real merit. They say essentially the same thing--though in different order. Notice in the passage that the author does not indicate which system is better until the end of paragraph one, and he does not make that certain until paragraph two. This contradicts the order given by (B). Hence the answer is (A). (Note: In (A) the order is not specified and therefore is harder to attack, whereas in (B) the order is definite and therefore is easier to attack. Remember that a measured response is harder to attack and therefore is more likely to be the answer.)
B. Show cause and effect.
In this technique, the author typically shows how a particular cause leads to a certain result or set of results. It is not uncommon for this method to introduce a sequence of causes and effects. A causes B, which causes C, which causes D, and so on. Hence B is both the effect of A and the cause of C.
Example: (Mini-passage)
Thirdly, I worry about the private automobile. It is a dirty, noisy, wasteful, and lonely means of travel. It pollutes the air, ruins the safety and sociability of the street, and exercises upon the individual a discipline which takes away far more freedom than it gives him. It causes an enormous amount of land to be unnecessarily abstracted from nature and from plant life and to become devoid of any natural function. It explodes cities, grievously impairs the whole titution of neighborliness, fragmentizes and destroys communities. It has already spelled the end of our cities as real cultural and social communities, and has made impossible the construction of any others in their place. Together with the airplane, it has crowded out other, more civilized and more convenient means of transport, leaving older people, infirm people, poor people and children in a worse situation than they were a hundred years ago. It continues to lend a terrible element of fragility to our civilization, placing us in a situation where our life would break down completely if anything ever interfered with the oil supply. George F. Kennan
Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A problem is presented and then a possible solution is discussed.
(B) The benefits and demerits of the automobile are compared and contrasted.
(C) A topic is presented and a number of its effects are discussed.
(D) A set of examples is furnished to support a conclusion.

This passage is laden with effects. Kennan introduces the cause, the automobile, in the opening sentence and from there on presents a series of effects--the automobile pollutes, enslaves, and so on. Hence the answer is (C). Note: (D) is the second-best choice; it is disqualified b two flaws. First, in this context, "examples" is not as precise as "effects." Second, the order is wrong: the conclusion, "I worry about the private automobile" is presented first and then the examples: it pollutes, it enslaves, etc.
C. State a position and then give supporting evidence.
This technique is common with opinionated passages. Equally common is the reverse order. That is, the supporting evidence is presented and then the position or conclusion is stated. And sometimes the evidence will be structured to build up to a conclusion which is then left unstated. If this is done skillfully the reader will be more likely to arrive at the same conclusion as the author.
Extension Questions
Extension questions are the most common. They require you to go beyond what is stated in the passage, asking you to draw an inference from the passage, to make a conclusion based on the passage, or to identify one of the author's tacit assumptions. Since extension questions require you to go beyond the passage, the correct answer must say more than what is said in the passage. Beware of same language traps with these questions: the correct answer will often both paraphrase and extend a statement in the passage, but it will not directly quote it.
"Same Language" traps: For extension questions, any answer-choice that explicitly refers to or repeats a statement in the passage will probably be wrong. The correct answer to an extension question will not require a quantum leap in thought, but it will add significantly to the ideas presented in the passage.
Example: (Refer to the first passage.)
The author views the prosecution's role in the inquisitorial system as being
(A) an advocate for both society and the defendant
(B) solely responsible for starting a trial
(C) a protector of the legal rule
(D) an investigator only
(E) an aggressive but fair investigator

This is an extension question. So the answer will not be explicitly stated in the passage, but it will be stronglysupported by it. The author states that the prosecutor is duty bound to present any evidence that may prove the defendant innocent and that he must disclose all pretrial evidence (i.e., have no tricks up his sleeve). This is the essence of fair play. The answer is (E).
Application Questions
Application questions differ from extension questions only in degree. Extension questions ask you to apply what you have learned from the passage to derive new information about the same subject, whereas application questions going one step further, asking you to apply what you have learned from the passage to a different or hypothetical situation. To answer an application question, take the author's perspective. Ask yourself: what am I arguing for? what might make my argument stronger? what might make it weaker?
Example: (Refer to the first passage.)
Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that which one of the following would most logically begin a paragraph immediately following the passage?
(A) Because of the inquisitorial system's thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.
(B) As the preceding analysis shows, the legal system is in a constant state of flux. For now the inquisitorial system is ascendant, but it will probably be soon replaced by another system.
(C) The accusatorial system begins where the inquisitorial system ends. So it is three steps removed from the system of private vengeance, and therefore historically superior to it.
(D) Because in the inquisitorial system the judge must take an active role in the conduct of the trial, his competency and expertise have become critical.
(E) The criminal justice system has evolved to the point that it no longer seems to be derivative of the system of private vengeance. Modern systems of criminal justice empower all of society with the right to instigate a legal action, and the need for vengeance is satisfied through a surrogate--the public prosecutor.

The author has rather thoroughly presented his position, so the next paragraph would be a natural place for him to summarize it. The passage compares and contrasts two systems of criminal justice, implying that the inquisitorial system is superior. We expect the concluding paragraph to sum up this position. Now all legal theory aside, the system of justice under which an innocent person would choose to be judged would, as a practical matter, pretty much sum up the situation. Hence the answer is (A).
Tone Questions
Tone questions ask you to identify the writer's attitude or perspective. Is the writer's feeling toward the subject positive, negative, or neutral? Does the writer give his own opinion, or does he objectively present the opinions of others? Before you read the answer-choices, decide whether the writer's tone is positive, negative, or neutral. It is best to do this without referring to the passage. However, if you did not get a feel for the writer's attitude on the first reading, check the adjectives that he chooses. Adjectives and, to a lesser extent, adverbs express our feelings toward subjects. For instance, if we agreewith a person who holds strong feelings about a subject, we may describe his opinions as impassioned. On the other hand, if we disagree with him, we may describe his opinions as excitable, which has the same meaning as "impassioned" but carries a negative connotation.
Example: (Refer to the first passage.)
The author's attitude toward the adversarial system can best be described as
(A) encouraged that it is far removed from the system of private vengeance
(B) concerned that it does not allow all members of society to instigate legal action
(C) pleased that it does not require the defendant to conduct his own pretrial investigation
(D) hopeful that it will be replaced by the inquisitorial system
(E) doubtful that it is the best vehicle for justice

The author does not reveal his feelings toward the adversarial system until the end of paragraph one. Clearly the clause "the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes the punitive combat" indicates that he has a negative attitude toward the system. This is confirmed in the second paragraph when he states that the inquisitorial system is historically superior to the adversarial system. So he feels that the adversarial system is deficient. The "two-out-of-five" rule is at work here: only choices (D) and (E) have any real merit. Both are good answers. But which one is better? Intuitively, choice (E) is more likely to be the answer because it is more measured. To decide between two choices attack each: the one that survives is the answer. Now a tone question should be answered from what is directly stated in the passage--not from what it implies. Although the author has reservations toward the adversarial system, at no point does he say that he hopes the inquisitorial system will replace it, he may prefer a third system over both. This eliminates (D); the answer therefore is(E).
PIVOTAL WORDS
As mentioned before, each passage contains 200 to 600 words and only four to seven questions, so you will not be tested on most of the material in the passage. Your best reading strategy, therefore, is to identify the places from which questions will most likely be drawn and concentrate your attention there. Pivotal words can help in this regard. Following are the most common pivotal words.
Pivotal Words
ButAlthough
HoweverYet
DespiteNevertheless
NonethelessExcept
In contrastEven though
As you may have noticed, these words indicate contrast. Pivotal words warn that the author is about to either make a U-turn or introduce a counter-premise (concession to a minor point that weakens the argument).
Example: (Counter-premise)
I submit that the strikers should accept the management's offer. Admittedly, it is less than what was demanded. But it does resolve the main grievance--inadequate health care. Furthermore, an independent study shows that a wage increase greater than 5% would leave the company unable to compete against Japan and Germany, forcing it into bankruptcy. The conclusion, "the strikers should accept the management's offer," is stated in the first sentence. Then "Admittedly" introduces a concession (counter-premise); namely, that the offer was less than what was demanded. This weakens the speaker's case, but it addresses a potential criticism of his position before it can be made. The last two sentences of the argument present more compelling reasons to accept the offer and form the gist of the argument. Pivotal words mark natural places for questions to be drawn. At a pivotal word, the author changes direction.
The GRE Writers form questions at these junctures to test whether you turned with the author or you continued to go straight. Rarely do the GRE writers let a pivotal word pass without drawing a question from its sentence.

Labels:

Simple , Sample essay



GRE Model Essay 47. "With the growth of global networks in such areas as economics and communication, there is no doubt that every aspect of society including education, politics, the arts, and the sciences will benefit greatly from international influences."

I agree that the globalization of economic and communication networks will heighten international influences in all four of the areas listed. However, while those influences will no doubt benefit education and the sciences, the nature of those influences on the arts and on politics will probably be a mixed one beneficial in some respects yet detrimental in others.

The dearest and most immediate beneficiaries of international influences are students. When students learn more about other cultures, systems of government, religions, and so forth, they advance their knowledge and grow in their understanding of humanity which is, after all, the final objective of education. Emerging distance-learning technologies, made practicable now by the Internet, will no doubt carry an especially profound international influence on education. Distance learning will permit a class of students located all over the world to video-conference simultaneously with a teacher and with one other, thereby enlivening and enriching educational experiences.

The sciences dearly benefit from international influences as well. After all, principles of physics, chemistry, and mathematics know no political boundaries; thus a useful insight or discovery can come from a researcher or theorist anywhere in the world. Accordingly, any technology that enhances global communication can only serve to advance scientific knowledge. For example, astronomers can now transmit observational data to other scientists throughout the world the instant they receive that data, so that the entire global community of astronomers can begin interpreting that data together in a global brain-storming session. The sciences also benefit from multi-national economic cooperation. Consider, for instance, the multi-national program to establish a human colony on the Moon. This ambitious project is possible only because participating nations are pooling their economic resources as well as scientific talents.

With respect to the arts, however, the speaker's claim is far less convincing. It might seem that if artists broaden their cultural exposure and real-world experience their art works would become richer and more diverse. However, the logical consequence of increasing international influence on the arts is a homogenous global culture in which art becomes increasingly the same. The end result is not only a chilling effect on artistic creativity, but also a loss of cultural identity, which seems to be an important sociological and psychological need.

The impact of global networking on political relations might turn out to be a mixed one as well. Consider, for instance, the current unification of Europe's various monetary systems. Since Europe's countries are become economically interdependent, it would seem that it would be in their best interests to cooperate politically with one another. However, discord over monetary policy might result in member countries withdrawing from the Community, and in a political schism or other falling out. Consider also the burgeoning global communications network. On the one hand, it would seem that instant face-to-face communication between diplomats and world leaders would help avert and quell political and military crises. By the same token, however, global networking renders any nation's security system more vulnerable. This point is aptly illustrated by a recent incident involving a high-ranking Pentagon official who stored top-secret fries on his home computer, which was connected to the Internet without any firewall precautions. Incidents such as this one might prompt the world's governments to become more protective of their sovereignty, more insular, and even-paranoid.

In sum, growing international influences that result naturally from global communications and economic networks can only serve to facilitate education and to advance scientific knowledge. However, although the same influences no doubt will have an impact on the arts and on international politics, the speaker's claim that those influences will be beneficial is dubious, or at least premature, given that global networking is still in its nascent stages.



GRE Model Essay 52. "How children are socialized today determines the destiny of society. Unfortunately, we have not yet learned how to raise children who can help bring about a better society."

I find the speaker's dual claim to be specious on both counts. The claim that society's destiny hinges on how children are socialized, while appealing in some respects, is an over-statement at best. And the claim that we have not yet learned how to raise children who can better society is poorly supported by empirical evidence.

Consider first the speaker's assertion that society's destiny depends on how children are socialized. I concede that unless a child is allowed sufficient opportunities for healthy interaction with peers, that child is likely to grow into an ineffectual, perhaps even an anti-sodal, adult. To witness healthy socialization in action, one need look no further than the school playground, where children learn to negotiate, cooperate, and assert themselves in a respectful manner, and where they learn about the harmful results of bullying and other anti-social behavior. These lessons help children grow up to be good citizens and effective leaders, as well as tolerant and respectful members of society.

However, socialization is only one factor influencing the extent to which an individual will ultimately contribute to a better society. And in my observation it is not the most important one. Consider certain prominent leaders who have contributed profoundly to a better society. Mahatma Gandhi's contributions sprang primarily from the courage of his inner convictions, in spite of his proper socialization among genteel Indian society and, as a law student, among British society. Martin Luther King's contribution was primarily the result of his strong religious upbringing, which had more to do with parental influence than with socialization. An even more remarkable modern example was Theodore Roosevelt, whose social and physical development were both stunted by life-threatening physical infirmities during his childhood. In spite of his isolation, odd manner and aloofness throughout his early life, Roosevelt ascended to a social-activist presidency by means of his will to overcome physical infLrmities, his voracious appetite for knowledge, and his raw intellect.

Consider next the speaker's claim that we have not yet learned how to raise children who can better society. If we define a "better" society as one characterized by greater tolerance of differing viewpoints and people who are different from ourselves, greater respect for individual rights, and greater cooperation across cultural and national boundaries, then the children of the most recent half-century are creating a better society. The most recent quarter-century has seen an increasing sensitivity in our society toward ensuring public health by policing the food and drug industries and by protecting our natural environment. We're becoming more sensitive to, and respectful of, the rights of women, various ethnic and racial groups, homosexuals, and mentally- and physically-challenged individuals. The re-emergence of political third parties with decidedly libertarian ideals demonstrates an increasing concern for individual freedoms. And there is ample evidence of increasing international cooperation. The former Soviet Union and theU.S. have worked collaboratively in space research and exploration since the 1970s; peace-keeping missions are now largely multi-national efforts; and nations are now tackling public health problems collaboratively through joint research programs. In short, the speaker's second claim flies in the face of the empirical evidence, as I see it.

In sum, when it comes to whether a child grows up to contribute to a better society, the key determinant is not socialization but rather some other factor such as a seminal childhood event, parental influence, raw intelligence, or personal conviction. And, while reasonable people with differing political and social viewpoints might disagree about what makes for a "better" society, in my observation our society is steadily evolving into a more civilized, respectful, and tolerant one. In the final analysis, then, I fundamentally disagree with both aspects of the speaker's dual claim.


Answers


Check the answers with what You have worked

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Answers

1 Ans :D
2 Ans :A
3 Ans :A
4 Ans :D
5 Ans :E
6 Ans :E
7 Ans :E
8 Ans :D
9 Ans :A
10 Ans :E
11 Ans :C
12 Ans :D
13 Ans :C
14 Ans :A
15 Ans :D
16 Ans :B
17 Ans :C
18 Ans :C
19 Ans :D

Labels:

Practice Test

Practice Test

The Answers will be Posted Tomorrow.
Workout and be ready with the answers to check

Directions:

Each GRE sample sentence compltion question below has one or two blanks. Each blank shows that something has been omitted. Under each GRE sample sentence completion question five words are given as choice. Choose the one correct word for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentences as a whole.


1. The fact that the_____ of confrontation is no longer as popular as it once was _____progress in race relations.
A. insidiousness - reiterates
B. practice - inculcates
C. glimmer - foreshadows
D. technique - presages
E. reticence - indicates
2. A child should not be _____as being either very shy or over aggressive.
A. categorized
B. instructed
C. intoned
D. distracted
E. refrained
3. President Anwar el - Sadat of Egypt, disregarding ______ criticism in the Alab world and in his own Government, _____ accepted prime minister Menahem Begin's invitation to visit Israel in order to address the Israeli parliament.
A. acrimonious - formally
B. blemished - stiffly
C. categorical - previously
D. malignant - plaintively
E. charismatic - meticulou
4. In his usual ______manner, he had insured himself against this type of loss.
A. pensive
B. providential
C. indifferent
D. circumspect
E. caustic
5. We never believed that he would resort to ______in order to achieve his goal; we always regarded him as a _____man.
A. charm - insincere
B. necromancy - pietistic
C. logic - honorable
D. prestidigitation - articulate
E. subterfuge - honest
6. The Sociologist responded to the charge that her new theory was ______by pointing out that it did not in fact contradict accepted sociological principles.
A. unproven
B. banal
C. superficial
D. complex
E. heretical
7. Despite assorted effusion to the contrary, there is no necessary link between scientific skill and humanism, and quite possibly, there may be something of a ______ between them.
A. dichotomy
B. congruity
C. reciprocity
D. fusion
E. generosity
8. The most technologically advanced societies have been responsible for the greatest ______ indeed savagery seems to be indirect proposition to ____
A. inventions - know-how
B. wars - viciousness
C. triumphs - civilizations
D. atrocities - development
E. catastrophes - ill-will
9. Ironically, the party leaders encountered no greater _____their efforts to build as Progressive Party than the ______ of the progressive already elected to the legislature.
A. obstacle to - resistance
B. support for - advocacy
C. praise for - reputation
D. threat to - promise
E. benefit - success
10. The _____ tones of the flute succeeded in _____ his tense nerves.
A. rhapsodic - minimising
B. blatant - enhancing
C. hovendous - calming
D. vibrant - portraying
E. mellifluous - soothing.
11. Without the psychiatrist's promise of confidentiality, trust is ______ and the patient's communication limited; even though confidentiality can thus be seen to be precious in thercopy, moral responsibility sometimes requires a willingness to _________ it.
A. lost - forget
B. implicit - extend
C. impaired - sacrifise
D. ambiguous - apply
E. assumed - examine.
12. Parts of seventeenth-century Chinese pleasure gardens were not necessarily intended to look ____they were designed expressly to evoke the agreeable melancholy resulting from a sense of the ____of natural beauty and human glory. A. great - immutability
B. joyful - mortality
C. conventional - wildness
D. cheerful - transitoriness
E. colorful - abstractness.
13. Despite the _____of many of their colleagues, some scholars have begun to emphasize ''pop culture'' as a key for _____ the myths, hopes, and fears of contemporary society.
A. pedantry - reinstating
B. enthusiasm - symbolizing
C. skepticism - deciphering
D. antipathy - involving
E. discernment - evaluating.
14. If duty is the natural _____ of one's the course of future events, then people who are powerful have______ duty placed on them whether they like it or not.
A. outgrowth - control over
B. arbiter - responsibility for
C. correlate - understanding of
D. determinant - involvement in
E. mitigant - preoccupation with .
15. Clearly refuting sceptics, researches have _____ not only that gravitational radiation exists but that it also does exactly what the theory _____ it should do.
A. supposed - asserted
B. voubted -warranted
C. assumed - deduced
D. demonstrated - predicted
E. estimated - accepted
16. The Neolatonists' conception of a deity, in which perfection was measured by abundant fecundity, was contradicted by that of the Aristotelians, in which perfection was displayed in the ____of creation.
A. variety
B. economy
C. profusion
D. clarity
E. precision.
17. It is a great ____to be able to transfer useful genes with as little extra gene material as possible, because the donor's genome may contain, in addition to desirable genes, many genes with _____ effects.
A. Disappointment - superfluous
B. Convenience - exquisite
C. Advantage - deleterious
D. Accomplishment - profound
E. Misfortune - unpredictable.
18. While admitting that the risks incurred by use of the insecticide were not _____ the manufacturer's spokesperson argued that effective _____ were simply not available.
A. indeterminable - safeguards
B. unusual - alternatives
C. inconsequential - substitutes
D. proven - antidotes
E. increasing - procedures.
19. Human reaction to the realm of though is often as strong as that to sensible presences; our higher moral life is based on the fact that _____ sensations actually present may have a weaker influence on our action than do ideas of ______ facts.
A. emotional - impersonal
B. familiar : symbolic
C. disturbing - ordinary
D. material - remote
E. defenitive - controvoisial.

Labels:

TIPS N TACTICS

OVERALL TEST TACTICS:

Related Links:
Typical GRE Math
Learn it from the Basic

1. Learn the section directions now. Use the time saved during the test to work on questions.
2. Be especially careful in the first portion of every section. Successful answers to the earliest questions will lead to higher scores.
3. You can write on the scratch paper provided. You can also remember to bring some extra scratch paper. Use the process of elimination to cross out wrong answers; do scratch work.
4. Easy questions usually precede hard ones.
5. Double check your work and answer before you click on the screen bubble. You cannot skip any question and you cannot go back after you've answered a question.
6. Answer every question, making educated guesses if you have to. Just try to eliminate one or more choices before guessing.
7. Don't spend too much time on any one question. You should spend only seconds on the easiest questions, and hesitate to spend more than 1-2 minutes on even the hardest ones.
8. Practice, practice, practice!
9. Bring a watch to the test center. You can't be guaranteed that there'll be a working clock there.
10. Don't bring a calculator since you're not allowed to use one.
11. Bring a couple of IDs to the test center. Make sure at least one of the pictures actually looks like you. Also bring any authorization voucher you may have received from the Educational Testing Service.
12. Read the words in the question carefully. Be sure to answer the question asked and not the question you recall from a practice test.
13. Know the Question Types to Expect on the GRE: * analogies * sentence completion * reading comprehension * math multiple-choices * quantitative comparisons

================================================================

SPECIFIC SECTIONAL STRATEGIES
VERBAL Section --- SENTENCE COMPLETION:
1. Before looking at the answers, try to complete the sentence with words that make sense to you.
2. Don't rush your selection. Consider all the answers to make the best choice.
3. Use the context of nearby words to figure out unknown words.
4. Don't overlook the reversing effect of negative words (like not) or prefixes (like un-).
5. If you're really stuck for the meaning of a word, try to think of other words that have similar prefixes, roots, or suffixes.
6. Eliminate choices in double-blank questions if the first word alone doesn't make sense in the sentence.
7. Let transition words (like although and likewise) help suggest the best answer.

VERBAL Section --- ANALOGIES:
1. First: create a sentence in your mind that uses the two capitalized words.
2. Learn to recognize common types of analogies.
3. Eliminate answer pairs that are clearly wrong.
4. Beware of possibly correct answers that appear in reverse order.
5. If more than one choice appears possible, analyze the words again.
6. Consider alternative meanings of words, as well as alternative parts of speech.
7. If you don't know the meaning a word, try to recall if you've ever heard it in an expression. The context of the expression may suggest the meaning of the word.
8. Beware of obvious answers! They may be there only to mislead you.

VERBAL Section --- ANTONYMS:
1. Use word parts (prefixes, roots, suffixes) to figure out the probable meaning of unknown words.
2. Be aware of secondary meanings of words. For example, 'appreciation' can just as readily mean 'increase' as it does 'gratitude'. When no answer seems correct, look for an alternative (or 'secondary') meaning for your antonym/opposite choice.
3. Consider the 'feel' of the word. It may create a sense in you of its meaning, such as a word like 'grandiose'. It may have a positive or negative connotation, which may help you to eliminate some choices.
4. Try to think of similarly constructed words that you may recognize and that may give you a clue as to the meaning of an otherwise unknown word.
5. Think of a recognizable context for a word you don't recognize. Let the context of the word in a phrase or sentence suggest its probable meaning.
6. Think of an opposite meaning for the capitalized word, even before you look at the actual choices.
7. Read all the choices before selecting your answer.

VERBAL Section --- READING COMPREHENSION:
1. You should base your answers to the questions solely on what is stated or implied in the passages.
2. Read the italicized introductory text.
3. Skip questions you don't know. Return to them after answering other easier questions.
4. First and last sentences of each paragraph are critical.
5. Find the right spot in a passage by using any line reference numbers that appear in the questions.
6. Answer questions on familiar topics before unfamiliar topics.
7. Read the passages before reading the questions.
8. Don't waste time memorizing details.

================================================================
MATH Section - STANDARD MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. Read the question well. Be sure to select the best answer for the variable, value, or expression that is requested!
2. Learn in advance all of the critical definitions, formulas, and concepts that appear in common questions.
3. Remember to use the test booklet for scratch work, as well as for marking up any diagrams/graphs.
4. Early questions in this section are easier. Spend less time on them.
5. Don't get carried away with detailed calculations. Look for a trick or a shortcut if the question seems time consuming.
6. When a question contains a weird symbol, just substitute the accompanying definition when figuring out the best answer choice.

MATH Section - QUANTITATIVE COMPARISONS:
1. Don't ever guess at Choice E. There are only four choices!
2. Always consider values that are fractional (between 0 and 1), zero, negative, or non-integer.
3. Factor out, then cancel, any common expressions or quantities in both Columns A and B.
4. Remember that you are just trying to make relative comparisons.
5. Questions are simpler and should take less time than the Standard Multiple Choice. Look closely. The answer is often apparent without any calculations.
6. Write on any diagrams to help clarify any values, angles, sides, etc.
Compare; don't solve!
7. Simplify one or both sides whenever possible before comparing.

ANALYTIC Section:
1.Read the entire question first. This enables you to get a better sense of the 'argument' and how best to approach the logic involved.
2.Read the entire argument as well. This enables you to better understand the logic involved and the likely conclusions.
3.Pay attention to key words, such as always or never (absolute terms) or sometimes or almost (relative terms).
4.In trying to use the process of elimination, you should consider dropping from consideration an answer choice if it goes beyond the contents (ie. scope) of the argument.
5.You should also consider eliminating choices that are more extreme (ie. using absolute terms).

Labels:

Twenty Typical GRE Math Problems




Hi frnds,

This time we shall see some Typical maths problem n their solution as well. Hope you all make the best use of it.

A simple Quote for u:-
"The world has the habbit of making room for the man whose words and actions show that he knows where he is going "


Twenty Typical GRE Math Problems

Directions for problem-solving questions : For each of the following questions, select the best of the answer choices.

Numbers : All numbers used are real numbers.

Figures : The diagrams and figures that accompany these questions are for the purpose of providing information useful in answering the questions. Unless it is stated that a specific figure is not drawn to scale, the diagrams and figures are drawn as accurately as possible. All figures are in a plane unless otherwise indicated.



1) If both x and y are prime numbers, which of the following CANNOT be the difference of x and y?

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 15
(E) 23



2) Car X and Car Y are five miles apart and are on a collision course. Car X is driving directly north and Car Y is driving directly east. If the point of impact is one mile closer to the current position of Car X than to the current position of Car Y, how many miles away from the point of impact is Car Y at this time?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5



________________________________
A B C D E

3) In the diagram above, AD = BE = 6 and CD = 3(BC). If AE = 8, then BC = ?

(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1




4) If the length of rectangle A is one-half the length of rectangle B, and the width of rectangle A is one-half the width of rectangle B, what is the ratio of the area of rectangle A to the area of rectangle B?

(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/1
(D) 2/1
(E) 4/1



5) If the area of a rectangle is 12, what is its perimeter?

(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 14
(D) 16
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.



6) A cube and a rectangular solid are equal in volume. If the length of the edges of the rectangular solid are 4, 8, and 16, what is the length of an edge of the cube?

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) 64



7) The distance between Athens and Carthage is 120 miles. A car travels from Athens to Carthage at 60 miles per hour and returns from Carthage to Athens along the same route at 40 miles per hour. What is the average speed for the round trip?

(A) 48
(B) 50
(C) 52
(D) 56
(E) 58



8) If w is 10% less than x, and y is 30% less than z, they wy is what percent less than xz?

(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 37%
(D) 40%
(E) 100%



9) How many different ways can three cubic boxes be painted if each box is painted one color and only the three colors pink, orange and yellow are available? (Order is not considered, ie, pink/orange/pink is considered the same as pink/pink/orange).

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 27


10) If x is an integer and y = -2x - 8, what is the least value of x for which y is less than 9?

(A) -9
(B) -8
(C) -7
(D) -6
(E) -5



11) What is the perimeter of the triangle connecting the points with (x,y) coordinates (-2,7), (3,-5) and (-2,-5)?

(A) 18
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 27
(E) 30



12) In the repeating decimal 0.097531097531...., what is the 44th digit to the right of the decimal point?

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 7
(E) 9



13) What is the greatest integer that will always evenly divide the sum of three consecutive even integers?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 12



14) Decorative ribbon is cut into three equal parts. The resulting segments are then cut into 4, 6 and 8 equal parts, respectively. If each of the resulting pieces has an integer length, what is the minimum length of the ribbon?

(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 48
(D) 54
(E) 72



15) The average (mean) of six numbers is 6. If 3 is subtracted from each of four of the numbers, what is the new average?

(A) 3/2
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 9/2



16) If chocolate, nuts and caramel are to be mixed in the ratio 3:5:7 respectively, and 5 tons of chocolate are available, how many tons of the mixture can be made? (Assume there is enough nuts and caramel to use all the chocolate.)

(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
(E) 75



17) If the degree measures of two angles of an isosceles triangle are in ther ratio 1:3, what is the degree measure of the largest angle if it is not a base angle?

(A) 26 degrees
(B) 36 degrees
(C) 51 degrees
(D) 92 degrees
(E) 108 degrees



18) x(x - y) - z(x - y) =

(A) x - y
(B) x - z
(C) (x - y)(x - z)
(D) (x - y)(x + z)
(E) (x - y)(z - x)



19) A stock decreases in value by 20 percent. By what percent must the stock price increase to reach its former value?

(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 25%
(D) 30%
(E) 40%



20) The population of a certain town increases by 50 percent every 50 years. If the population in 1950 was 810, in what year was the population 160?

(A) 1650
(B) 1700
(C) 1750
(D) 1800
(E) 1850



Solutions to Math Problems



1) Choice E is correct. This problem is solved fastest by process of elimination. Both 2 and 3 are prime and their difference is one (Eliminate Choice A). Both 5 and 2 are prime and their difference is 3 (Eliminate Choice B). Both 11 and 2 are prime and their difference is 9 (Eliminate C). Both 17 and 2 are prime and their difference is 15 (Eliminate D).


2) Choice D is correct. This problem can be solved by using the Pythagorean theorem as Cars X and Y are 5 miles apart, which is the hypotenuse of a right triangle. Let d be the distance Car Y is from the point of collision. Then the distance Car X is from the collision is d-1. Solving for D: dd + (d-1)(d-1) = 25, d=4, -3. Since d denotes distance, we reject -3 as a valid answer.


3) Choice E is correct. Since AE is a line segment and all the lengths are additive, AE = AD + DE. We know that AD = 6 and AE = 8. So DE = AE - AD = 8 - 6 = 2. We also know that BE = 6. So BD = BE - DE = 6 - 2 = 4. We know BD is 4, but need to find BC.

Since CD = 3(BC), we can solve for BC: x + 3x = 4. x = 1.


4) Choice A is correct. This problem includes a common mistake: the ratio of areas is NOT the same as the ratio of lengths. Instead, the ratio of areas for similar polygons is equal to the square of the lengths of the lengths. If we use 4 and 2 as the length and width for rectangle A, its area is 8. Rectangle B would have an area of (8)(4) = 32, four times that of A.


5) Choice E is correct. The area of a rectangle does not tell us much about the perimeter. We can try substituting values for it, but more than one perimeter is possible based on the information given.


6) Choice B is correct. We have all of the dimensions to calculate the volume of the rectangular solid, which is 16 x 8 x 4. This is also the volume of the cube. So, the length of an edge of the cube is the cubic root of (16 x 8 x 4), or 8.


7) Choice A is correct. Average speed = Total distance / Total time. A car traveling at 40 mph will cover 120 miles in 3 hours. A car traveling at 60 mph covers the same 120 miles in 2 hours. The total travel time is therefore 5 hours.

For the entire round trip, the average speed = (120 + 120) / 5 = 48 mph.


8) Choice C is correct. We solve using simple equations:

w is 10% less than x w = x - 0.10x, or w = 0.9x
y is 30% less than z y = z - 0.30z, or y = 0.7z

wy = (0.9x)(0.7z) = 0.63xz , or xz - 0.37xz


9) Choice D is correct. There are theoretically 27 color combinations (3 x 3 x 3), without restriction. If order is not considered, then there are just 10 distinct color combinations available.

PPP YYY OOO
PPY YYP OOP
PPO YYO OOY
PYO YPY OPY
PYY YPP OPP
PYP YPO OPO
POO YOY OYY
POY YOP OYP
POP YOO OYO


10) Choice B is correct. From the wquation given, we simplify to: -2x-8 <> -8.5, or x = -8.


11) Choice E is correct. When we sketch the points on a graph, we note that Points A, B and C form a right triangle ACB. To find the perimeter, we find the lengths of the three sides and add them together.
A (-2, 7) B (3,- 5) C (-2, -5)

AC = 7-(-5) = 12
BC = 3 - (-2) = 5

Using the Pythagorean theorem to solve for hypotenuse AB,

AB squared = (12)(12) + (5)(5) = 13 = AB

Perimeter = 12 + 13 + 5 = 30


12) Choice E is correct. The pattern is the same 6 numbers in the same order: 0,9,7,5,3 and 1. The 44th digit will be a 9.


13) Choice D is correct. We can solve this by working with actual numbers. Starting with zero, we see that the sum is always a multiple of 6:
0 + 2 + 4 = 6, 2 + 4 + 6 = 12, 4 + 6 + 8 = 18 , 6 + 8 + 10 = 24, etc.


14) Choice E is correct. Since the ribbon is cut into three equal parts, the minimum length is a multiple of three. Since one of the three pieces is then divided evenly into 8 pieces, the length of the ribbon must be at least (3)(8), or 24. Another piece is cut evenly into 6 pieces. Thus, we seek the least common multiple of 6 and 8. The smallest common multiple of 6 and 8 is 24, so the minimum length of the ribbon is 3(24) = 72.


15) Choice D is correct. If 6 numbers have an average of 6, their sum is 36. Subtracting 3 from 4 of the numbers removes 3(4), or 12 from the sum. The new sum is 24 and the new mean is 24/6 = 4.


16) Choice C is correct. Since the ratio of chocolate to nuts to caramel is 3:5:7, for every three portions of chocolate we add, we get 3 + 5 + 7 or 15 portions of the mixture. Thus, the formula gives 15/3 or 5 times as much mixture as chocolate. If we have 5 tons of chocolate, we can make 5 x 5 or 25 tons of the mixture.


17) Choice E is correct. Let x denote the base angles and y denote the largest angle. We know that x/y = 1/3, or y = 3x. We also know that x + x + y = 180. Combining equations, we have:
2x + 3x = 180, or x = 36. Since y is 3 times x, y is 108.


18) Choice C is correct. since (x - y) is a common factor, we factor it out:
x(x - y) - z(x - y) = (x - y)(x - z)


19) Choice C is correct. Although the stock must increase and decrese by the same amount, it does not increase and decrease by the same percent. When the stock first decreased, the amount of change was part of a larger whole. Let's solve this by using $100 as the initial price of the stock:

The 20% decrease reduced the stock price to $80. For the stock to reach $100 again, there must be a $20 increase. $20 is what % of $80? 20/80 x 100 = 25%.


20) Choice C is correct. The population in 1950 was 150% (or 3/2) the 1900 population, making the 1900 population 2/3 of that in 1950. Simply multiply the population number by 2/3 every 50 years, down to 160 (for 1750).

810 (2/3) = 540 (2/3) = 360 (2/3) = 240 (2/3) = 160
1950 in 1900 in 1850 in 1800 in 1750



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